Emergency Medical Technician (EMT) Intermediate Practice Exam

A 69-year-old male with a history of hypertension and diabetes complains of tearing pain in the abdomen. This presentation is MOST consistent with what condition?

1. Acute pancreatitis

2. Appendicitis

3. Ruptured or dissecting aortic aneurysm

4. Gastroesophageal reflux disease

The correct answer is: Ruptured or dissecting aortic aneurysm

The most consistent condition with a 69-year-old male experiencing tearing pain in the abdomen, particularly considering his age and medical history of hypertension and diabetes, is a ruptured or dissecting aortic aneurysm. This type of pain is typically described as sudden, severe, and often described metaphorically as 'tearing' or 'ripping’ in nature, which aligns with the presenting symptom. Older adults, especially those with risk factors such as hypertension, are at an increased risk for developing aortic aneurysms. When an aneurysm ruptures or begins to dissect (where layers of the aortic wall tear apart), it can lead to catastrophic and life-threatening internal bleeding, making prompt recognition and treatment essential. The other conditions listed do exhibit abdominal pain but do not usually present with the characteristic tearing nature associated with aortic aneurysm issues. Acute pancreatitis, for example, typically presents with more localized pain that may be described as acute and severe but lacks the tearing quality. Appendicitis usually presents with more localized pain in the lower right quadrant and is often accompanied by other signs such as fever or rebound tenderness. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is characterized by heartburn and regurgitation, which again doesn't match the intense and tearing nature of